Introductory Biology
Sample Questions, Exam IV
Name__________
Multiple Choice: Circle the best answer.
1. The antiparallel nature of DNA is best explained by which
of
the following?
a. The two strands run in opposite directions,
each has an
exposed 5' phosphate on
one end and exposed 3'hydroxyl group on the other.
b. The two strands run in the same direction,
making it a simple
matter to copy
an identical but antiparallel strand of RNA.
c. The bases are antiparallel to the long
axis of the molecule.
d. Both a and c are true.
e. None of the above are true.
2. Which of the following is the best definition of semiconservative
replication?
a. The translation of a DNA molecule into
a complementary
strand of RNA.
b. The fact that a DNA molecule consists
of one parental strand and one new strand.
c. The fact that the number of DNA molecules
is doubled with
every other replication.
d. Both a and b are true.
e. None of the above are true.
3. Which of the following adds nucleotides to a growing
polynucleotide chain of DNA?
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA helicase enzyme
c. RNA primer
d. RNA polymerase
e. None of the above
4. Which of the following cause the unwinding of the double helix?
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA helicase enzyme
c. RNA primer
d. RNA polymerase
e. None of the above
5. Which of the following is the best definition of an RNA primer:
a. An RNA primer is a short piece of RNA
that initiates DNA synthesis once the two strands are separated.
b. An RNA primer provides an initiation site
for the first several
nucleotides
in the newly forming DNA molecule.
c. An RNA primer moves the two DNA strands
apart so that
formation of daughter
DNA strands can begin.
d. Both a and b are true.
e. Both a and c are true.
6. In DNA replication, the lagging strand
a. is synthesized as a series of Okazaki
fragments
b. is synthesized as a complementary copy
of the leading strand
c. pairs with the leading strand by
complementary base pairing
d. is made up entirely of RNA primers
e. is not synthesized until the synthesis
of the leading strand is
completed
7. Nucleosomes are best described as:
a. eukaryotic DNA associated with histone
proteins.
b. prokaryotic DNA associated with nonhistone
proteins.
c. eukaryotic DNA associated with nonhistone
proteins.
d. prokaryotic DNA associated with histone
proteins.
e. None of the above.
8. One of the codons specifying the amino acid leucine is
5'-CUA-3'. Its corresponding
anticodon is
a. 5'-CUA-3'
b. 3'-AUC-5'
c. 3'-GAU-5'
d. 3'-GAT-5'
e. 5'-GAU-3'
9. Uracil forms a complementary pair with
________ in RNA and ________ in DNA.
a. adenine, adenine
b. adenine, thymine
c. thymine, thymine
d. uracil, adenine
e. adenine, uracil
10. Anticodons are:
a. part of the tRNA molecule.
b. produced on all DNA templates.
c. made of three bases.
d. Only found in prokaryotic cells.
e. Only a and c are true
11. During protein synthesis, ribosomes:
a. attach to the mRNA molecule and
travel along its length.
b. attach to the DNA molecule and travel
along its length to
produce
an mRNA molecule.
c. translate mRNA to tRNA.
d. transcribe mRNA to tRNA.
e. Both a and d are true.
12. Why is only one strand of DNA transcribed into mRNA?
a. Because mRNA is only required in
small quantities.
b. Transcribing both DNA strands would
produce different
amino
acid sequences.
c. Only one strand of DNA contains
the correct sequence of
nucleotides.
d. Both a and b are true.
e. Both b and c are true.
13. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases function to:
a. initiate the formation of prptide
bonds between amino acids.
b. covalently link amino acids to their
respective tRNA
molecules.
c. break the bond between amino acids
and tRNAs so that the
amino acid
can join the growing polypeptide chain.
d.Both a and c are true.
e. None of the above are true.
14. The transcribed DNA sequence that is
complementary to the codon 5'-CUA-3'
is
a. 5'-CUA-3'
b. 3'-AUC-5'
c. 3'-GAU-5'
d. 3'-GAT-5'
e. 5'-GAU-3'
15. The principle of dominance states that:
a. the dominant trait shows up at least 50%
of the time in the first
generation.
b. the F1 generation of a hybrid
cross always exhibit dominant
traits.
c. one gene can mask the expression of another
in a hybrid.
d. all of the above are true.
e. none of the above are true.
16. The principle of segregation states that:
a. the separation of a species into two populations
is the main
mechanism of speciation.
b. the genes of a pair separate before gametes
are formed.
c. dominant genes always remain paired during
gamete formation
while recessive genes
separate.
d. both a and b are true.
e. both a nd c are true.
17. _________ are genes that govern the same feature, such as eye
color, and occupy corresponding positions
on homologous
chromosomes.
a. alleles
b. loci
c. homozygotes
d. coupled traits
e. none of the above
18. Which of the following represent the possible genotypes
resulting from a cross between
an individual homozygous for
black hair (BB) and an individual
heterozygous for black hair
(Bb)?
a. BB and Bb
b. BB, Bb and bb
c. BB only
d. Bb only
e. bb only
19. What is the probability that two lizards that are heterozygous
for
stripes on their tails (Ss) will
produce an offspring that is
homozygous for no stripes (ss)?
a. They will always produce offspring
that are
homozygous
for no stripes.
b. The probability is 1/2 that they
will produce offspring
homozygous
for no stripes.
c. The probability is 1/4 that they
will produce offspring
homozygous
for no stripes.
d. The probability is 1/8 that they
will produce offspring
homozygous
for no stripes.
e. They will never produce offspring
homozygous for no stripes.
20. Two Martians fall in love and get married. One Martian is
homozygous for red eyes (RR)
while the other is heterozygous
for red eyes (Rr). The recessive
eye color is purple. What
are the chances that they will have
a child with purple eyes?
a. 1/1
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. 3/4
e. 0
21. Why is color-blindness more common in males than in females?
a. because females would have to receive
two copies of the
recessive color
blindness gene to actually express the trait.
b. because a male only need receive
the recessive gene from his
mother to be
color-blind.
c. because color-blindness is an X-linked
trait.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.
22. Why is pattern baldness more common in men than in women?
a. the gene may be influenced by the
presence of sex hormones.
b. because of the effect of genes on
the Y chromosome.
c. because females would need to be
homozygous for the trait
to express
pattern baldness.
d. both a and b are true.
e. both a and c are true.
23. __________ refers to a situation in which several pairs of
alleles interact to affect a
single trait.
a. variegation
b. codominance
c. incomplete dominance
d. epistasis
e. none of the above
24. _______________ refers to multiple independent pairs of
genes having similar and additive effects
on the same
characteristic.
a. Codominance
b. Epistasis
c. Polygenic inheritance
d. Complete dominance
e. Additive dominance
Essay. Answer each question in the space
provided. The value of each question is indicated
in parenthesis.
1. Below is an ear of corn with purple (dominant)
and yellow (recessive) kernels. Answer the
following questions regarding this ear of corn.
(6 pts)
a. Would this represent the F1 generation
of a
monohybrid cross,
the F2 generation of a
monohybrid cross,
or is this a result of a
test cross? Explain.
b. What would be the possible genotype(s)
of
the purple kernels?
Explain.
2. In snapdragons, tallness (T) is dominant to
dwarfness (t), and red flower color is due to
gene (R) and white is its allele (r). The
heterozygous (Rr) condition results in pink
flower color. A dwarf white snapdragon is
crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness
and white flowers. What are the gneotypes
and phenotypes and genotypic and phenotypic
ratios of the F2 individuals? (6 pt)
3. True or False? Semiconservative
replication of
DNA means that DNA synthesis must be
primed using an RNA molecule.Explain. |